God The Father, God The Son in 2 John

In the Apostle John’s Second Letter, we have a very powerful testimony to the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ, and His complete equality with The Father.

“πᾶς ὁ παραβαίνων καὶ μὴ μένων ἐν τῇ διδαχῇ τοῦ Χριστοῦ, Θεὸν οὐκ ἔχει· ὁ μένων ἐν τῇ διδαχῇ τοῦ Χριστοῦ, οὗτος καὶ τὸν πατέρα καὶ τὸν υἱὸν ἔχει” (verse 9)

"Anyone who transgresses, and remains not in the teaching of the Christ, has not God. He that remains in the teaching of the Christ, this one both the Father and the Son has" (literal)

The person who is not faithful to the Teachings of Jesus Christ, this person does not possess the True God of the Holy Bible. However, the person who does remain faithful to the Teachings of Jesus Christ, this one possesses, both the Father and the Son.

Note very closely the language here. In the first instance, those who transgress by not remaining in the Teachings of Christ, are said not to possess “God”. On the other hand, those who do so remain in the Teachings of Christ, are said to possess “both the Father and the Son”. We would have expected John to have written, “this has God”, which would correspond with the previous sentence, where he spoke of those who transgress, as having “not God”. But, this he does not do. However, John says that, “God” is BOTH The Father and The Son!

Firstly, in the Greek text, John writes, “Θεὸν”, and not “τὸν Θεὸν”. Because, like in John 1:1, where it says, “και θεος ην ο λογος”, “and the Word was God”, it is the “nature”, and not the “Person”, that is being described, so the Greek article is not used. In John 1:18, according to the best textual evidence, we read the same, “θεον ουδεις εωρακεν πωποτε ο μονογενης θεὸς”, where both uses of “God”, do not have the definite article in the Greek. In neither case would the English read, “god”, or “a god”, unless it is for theology! The correct reading is, “God”. Interesting, that in all three places, the New Testament by Dr George Noyes, reads: “God”. Noyes was a Unitarian!

Secondly, we have the Greek sentence, “οὗτος καὶ τὸν πατέρα καὶ τὸν υἱὸν ἔχει” (this one possesses, both the Father and the Son). In the first use, the Greek particle, “καὶ”, is used, as “both”, and in the second use, as “connecting”, that is “The Father and The Son”, being Two distinct Persons, as is clear from the use of the article, “τὸν”.

In the First Letter of John, we have a very similar passage, where the Essential Unity of the Father and the Son is clearly seen.

“Who is a liar but he who denies that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist who denies the Father and the Son (τον πατερα και τον υιον). Whoever denies the Son does not have the Father either (τὸν Υἱὸν οὐδὲ τὸν Πατέρα ἔχει); he who acknowledges the Son has the Father also (τὸν Υἱὸν καὶ τὸν Πατέρα ἔχει)” (1 John 2:22-23)

To deny that Jesus IS The Christ/Messiah, is actually to deny the God of the Bible, by this denial, and does not possess either the Father and the Son. The person who acknowledges Jesus Christ, has the Father also, where the Greek particle “καὶ”, is translated “also”.

Similar language can be seen in John 10:30, where Jesus says: “I and the Father are one”. The plurality of Persons is clear from the use of “ἐσμεν”, which in the Greek is in the masculine gender, and plural in number. “We are”, not simply, “are”. Which is also seen in the use of “I”, as distinguished from “the Father”, which is with the Greek article, “ὁ”. However, the use of “one” is in the neuter gender, “ἕν” literally, “one thing”, or, “one being”. So, the text has the meaning, that, We, Who are distinct as Two separate Persons, and yet one with regard to our being, or nature.

The evidence is very clear to the fact, as taught in Scripture, that the Father and the Son, though clearly separate as Persons, are yet equal as Deity. In which case neither could be the “source” of the other’s life or being. Nor could either one exist before the other. All of which is also very true with regard to the Holy Spirit.